May 2024 Edition

May 2024 Current Affairs MCQs & Solutions

Top national & international current affairs questions for CSS, PMS, FPSC, PPSC, and NTS screening tests.

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#1941

On what grounds may the High Court or District Court exercise their revisionary jurisdiction?

(a) None of the these
(b) Question of fact
(c) Question of law
(d) Both A and B
Explanation: Revisionary jurisdiction is primarily concerned with the legality and propriety of the lower court's proceedings. It is generally restricted to questions of law, jurisdictional errors, or material irregularities in the exercise of jurisdiction. Unlike an appeal, which may involve a re-evaluation of facts, a revision is intended to correct legal errors or procedural lapses. Therefore, the court does not typically re-examine questions of fact unless they are inextricably linked to a jurisdictional error.
#1942

According to Section 25(10), what is the maximum number of consecutive adjournments a Bench may grant during an appeal hearing?

(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Explanation: Section 25(10) of the relevant procedural law restricts the granting of adjournments to ensure the expeditious disposal of cases. By limiting the number of consecutive adjournments to two, the legislature aims to prevent unnecessary delays in the appellate process, thereby upholding the principle that justice delayed is justice denied.
#1943

Which Order of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, specifies the orders from which an appeal may be preferred?

(a) Order XLI, of C.P.C.
(b) None of these
(c) Order XLIII, of C.P.C.
(d) Order XLII, of C.P.C.
Explanation: Order XLIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, explicitly lists the various orders passed by a court from which an appeal is maintainable. While Order XLI deals with appeals from original decrees, Order XLIII specifically addresses appeals from orders, providing a comprehensive list of appealable interlocutory orders.
#1944

If an aggrieved party fails to file an appeal against a decree where an appeal is permissible, what legal remedy may they pursue?

(a) None of these
(b) Both of these
(c) Apply for revision
(d) Apply for review
Explanation: A review application is a mechanism under the Civil Procedure Code that allows a party to request the same court that passed the decree to reconsider its decision based on specific grounds, such as the discovery of new evidence or an error apparent on the face of the record, provided no appeal has been preferred.
#1945

Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) specifies the orders from which an appeal may be preferred?

(a) None of these
(b) Section 104, of C.P.C.
(c) Section 103, of C.P.C
(d) Section 103-A, of C.P.C.
Explanation: Section 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides the statutory basis for appeals from orders. It lists specific types of orders that are appealable, distinguishing them from decrees. This section is fundamental to civil litigation, as it defines the scope of appellate jurisdiction regarding interlocutory orders passed by a trial court during the pendency of a suit.
#1946

Under which provision of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) may an appellant apply for the re-admission of an appeal that was previously dismissed under Rule 11 or Rule 17?

(a) Order XLI, R. 19, of C.P.C
(b) Order XLI, R. 18, of C.P.C.
(c) None of these
(d) Order XLI, R. 20, of C.P.C.
Explanation: Order XLI, Rule 19 of the Civil Procedure Code specifically allows an appellant to apply for the re-admission of an appeal that has been dismissed for default, such as failure to file paper books or non-appearance. The court may restore the appeal if the appellant provides sufficient cause for the previous default, ensuring the right to appeal is preserved.
#1947

Who may the court appoint as a local commissioner for the purpose of property partition?

(a) None of these
(b) A Patwari
(c) A Tehsildar
(d) Any person which it deems fit
Explanation: Under the provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, the court has wide discretionary powers to appoint a local commissioner to perform various tasks, including the partition of property. While the court often appoints revenue officials like a Patwari or Tehsildar due to their expertise in land records, the law allows the court to appoint any person it deems fit and competent to execute the commission.
#1948

Under what condition may a court appoint a Collector as a receiver for land revenue property?

(a) Collector
(b) Parties
(c) Court Officer
(d) None of the these
Explanation: When the property in question is land paying revenue to the government, the court may appoint the Collector as a receiver if it believes such management would benefit the parties. However, this appointment is subject to the consent of the Collector, as the court cannot unilaterally impose administrative duties on a government official without their agreement.
#1949

Under Order XL, Rule 1(a) of the Code of Civil Procedure, at what stage may a court appoint a receiver for a property?

(a) None of these
(b) Before a decree
(c) After a decree
(d) Both A and B
Explanation: Order XL, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, empowers the court to appoint a receiver of any property, whether before or after a decree, if it appears to the court to be just and convenient. This is a discretionary power exercised to protect the property during the pendency of litigation or to ensure the execution of a decree.
#1950

Under Order XL, Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who may be appointed as a receiver by the court?

(a) Collector
(b) None of these
(c) Any person
(d) Judge
Explanation: Order XL, Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) grants the court broad discretion to appoint any person as a receiver if it is deemed just and convenient for the management or preservation of property during the pendency of a suit. The rule does not restrict the appointment to specific officials, allowing the court to select an appropriate individual based on the case requirements.
#1951

Which rule under Order XXVI specifies the individuals for whom a commission may be issued for examination?

(a) O. XXVI, R. 4
(b) O. XXVI, R. 3
(c) O. XXVI, R. 2
(d) None of these
Explanation: Order XXVI, Rule 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure explicitly outlines the circumstances and the specific categories of persons for whose examination a commission may be issued by the court. This rule is essential for ensuring that evidence is collected from individuals who may be unable to attend court proceedings in person.
#1952

If a defendant avoids service of summons or if the court is satisfied that ordinary service is not feasible, what alternative method may the court order?

(a) Substituted ways
(b) None of these
(c) Both of the above
(d) Normal ways
Explanation: When a defendant deliberately avoids service or cannot be served through standard procedures, the court is empowered to order substituted service. This typically involves methods such as affixing the summons to a conspicuous part of the defendant's residence or publishing it in a newspaper, ensuring that the legal requirement for notice is met despite the defendant's efforts to evade it.
#1953

Under what condition may a party produce documentary evidence at a subsequent stage if they failed to produce it earlier?

(a) None of these
(b) Shows good cause for non production of evidence
(c) Make application with affidavit
(d) Is effective
Explanation: The rules of civil procedure generally require parties to produce all documentary evidence at the initial stages of a suit. However, if a party fails to do so, they may be permitted to produce it later only if they can demonstrate 'good cause' for the initial non-production. This requirement prevents the abuse of the judicial process and ensures that trials proceed in an orderly and timely manner.
#1954

Under the Civil Procedure Code, against whom may all persons be joined as parties if a right to relief is claimed?

(a) Plaintiffs
(b) Defendants
(c) Respondents
(d) None of these
Explanation: According to the principles of joinder of parties in civil litigation, all persons may be joined in one suit as defendants where any right to relief in respect of, or arising out of, the same act or transaction or series of acts or transactions is alleged to exist against them, whether jointly, severally, or in the alternative.
#1955

Under the Civil Procedure Code, how may a person conducting business under a name or style other than their own be sued?

(a) By his own name
(b) By the name of his business or style
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: According to the rules of civil procedure regarding suits by or against firms and persons carrying on business in names other than their own, such entities may be sued either in the name of the business style or in the individual name of the proprietor. This ensures that the legal process effectively identifies the party responsible for the business liabilities.
#1956

What action may a Court take if multiple causes of action joined in a single suit cannot be conveniently tried together?

(a) Reject the suit
(b) Transfer case to District Court
(c) None of the these
(d) Order separate trial
Explanation: Under the Code of Civil Procedure, courts have the discretionary power to manage the trial process. If the joinder of multiple causes of action creates confusion, delay, or procedural difficulty, the court may order separate trials to ensure the efficient and fair administration of justice for all parties involved.
#1957

What action may a court take if a witness intentionally avoids receiving a summons issued for their attendance?

(a) None of these
(b) Proclamation
(c) Attachment of that witness property
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: When a witness willfully evades service of summons, the court is empowered to issue a proclamation requiring their appearance. While property attachment is a severe measure, the primary procedural step for an absconding witness under standard civil and criminal procedure codes is the issuance of a proclamation to compel attendance before further coercive measures are applied.
#1958

According to Order VIII, Rule 10 of the CPC, what action may the court take if a party fails to submit a required written statement within the specified timeframe?

(a) Both A and B
(b) Make any other order regarding the suit
(c) None of these
(d) The Court may pronounce judgment against it
Explanation: Order VIII, Rule 10 of the CPC provides the court with discretionary power when a defendant fails to file a written statement as ordered. The court may either pronounce judgment against the defaulting party immediately or pass such other order as it deems appropriate in the circumstances of the case. This rule ensures that the litigation process is not unduly delayed by non-compliance with procedural requirements.
#1959

Pursuant to Section 5(2), in what manner may a contract of sale be executed, provided no other law dictates otherwise?

(a) Partly in writing or partly in words of month
(b) By words of month
(c) All of above ways
(d) Made in writing
Explanation: Section 5(2) of the Sale of Goods Act provides flexibility in the formation of a contract of sale. It stipulates that such a contract can be formed through various mediums, including oral agreements, written documents, or a combination of both, provided that no specific statutory requirement mandates a particular form for that transaction.
#1960

Under Order IX, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), what action may the court take if a summons is not served due to the plaintiff's failure to pay the required costs?

(a) None of these
(b) May dismissed the suit
(c) Both of the above
(d) May order for summon at Courts expenses
Explanation: Order IX, Rule 2 of the CPC stipulates that if the plaintiff fails to pay the court fee or postal charges required for the service of summons, the court may dismiss the suit. This provision ensures that the plaintiff remains diligent in prosecuting their case.