233 Questions• 175 Mins Practice• Updated for 2026 Competitive Exams
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233 Questions
61
What specific matters are addressed under Order 55 of the Executive Orders on Parole, 1934?
Correct Option
Option D
Explanation
Order 55 of the Executive Orders on Parole, 1934, provides comprehensive guidelines regarding the management of fines for individuals released on parole. It outlines the specific procedures that a Parole Officer must follow when dealing with cases involving fines, including the methods and requirements for the payment of such fines by the parolee, ensuring that financial obligations are met during the period of conditional release.
62
Which form must the Parole Officer submit to the Assistant Director to provide intimation of a parolee's final release?
Correct Option
Option B
Explanation
Form 3.25 is the designated document used by the Parole Officer to notify the Assistant Director that a parolee has been granted final release. This intimation is a critical step in the administrative process, as it signals the conclusion of the supervision period. By submitting this form, the Parole Officer confirms that all conditions of parole have been satisfied and that the individual is no longer subject to the oversight of the parole department.
63
At what age range is it generally observed that all epiphyseal plates in the limb bones have achieved complete fusion?
Correct Option
Option B
Explanation
The fusion of epiphyseal plates is a critical indicator in forensic anthropology for estimating biological age. Scientific consensus indicates that the complete union of these plates in the limb bones typically concludes between the ages of 19 and 20, signifying the cessation of longitudinal bone growth.
64
If A hires a carriage from B, and A sustains injuries due to the carriage's unsafe condition—even if B was unaware of the defect—who bears the legal responsibility?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
Under the law of bailment, a bailor is responsible to the bailee for any loss which the bailee may sustain by reason that the bailor was not entitled to make the bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them. Even if the bailor is unaware of a defect, they are often held liable for injuries resulting from the unsafe condition of the bailed goods.
65
On what date was the Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Act enacted?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
The Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Act was officially enacted on August 17, 1926. This legislation was designed to facilitate the rehabilitation of prisoners by allowing for their conditional release based on good behavior, thereby promoting social reintegration and reducing the burden on the prison system while maintaining public safety standards.
66
Which part of the 1956 Constitution contained the provisions regarding Fundamental Rights?
Correct Option
Option D
Explanation
Part II of the 1956 Constitution was dedicated to the protection and enumeration of Fundamental Rights. These rights were intended to safeguard the liberties of the citizens against state encroachment, serving as a cornerstone of the constitutional framework and ensuring judicial protection for individual freedoms.
67
Which specific legal subject matter is addressed by Section 226 of the Contract Act?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
Section 226 of the Contract Act establishes the legal principle that contracts entered into through an agent, and obligations arising from acts done by an agent, are enforceable in the same manner and have the same legal consequences as if the contracts had been entered into and the acts performed by the principal in person. This section specifically governs the legal relationship and binding nature of agency contracts regarding third parties.
68
In the eyes of the law, how is a contract entered into by a person of unsound mind classified?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
Under the principles of contract law, specifically the Contract Act, a person must be of sound mind to enter into a legally binding agreement. A contract formed by a person who is a lunatic or of unsound mind lacks the essential element of free consent and legal capacity. Consequently, such an agreement is considered void ab initio, meaning it has no legal effect from the very beginning.
69
What specific legal matter is addressed under Section 142 of the Contract Act 1872?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
Section 142 of the Contract Act 1872 specifically addresses the invalidity of a guarantee obtained by means of misrepresentation made by the creditor, or with his knowledge and assent, concerning a material part of the transaction. Such a guarantee is considered invalid. Note that Section 143 deals with guarantees obtained by concealment. The provided answer key identifies misrepresentation, which aligns with the statutory provision regarding invalidating guarantees.
70
What is the maximum percentage of a sentence that the total remission awarded to a parolee can reach without obtaining special sanction?
Correct Option
Option D
Explanation
The regulations governing parole stipulate that the total remission granted to a parolee should not exceed one-third of their total sentence length without receiving a special sanction from the relevant authorities. This limitation is intended to maintain the integrity of the sentencing process and ensure that parole remains a conditional privilege rather than a mechanism for excessive sentence reduction, requiring higher-level approval for exceptions.
71
To which of the following legal areas is the Law of Limitation generally considered inapplicable?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
The Law of Limitation prescribes time limits for initiating legal proceedings. In many jurisdictions, including Pakistan, claims regarding inheritance are often treated as rights that do not expire through the mere passage of time, as the right to inherit is considered a continuous legal entitlement that does not extinguish under standard limitation statutes.
72
How many distinct categories of asphyxial deaths are recognized in forensic medicine?
Correct Option
Option B
Explanation
In forensic pathology, asphyxial deaths are generally classified into four distinct categories based on the mechanism of oxygen deprivation: hanging, strangulation, suffocation, and chemical asphyxia. These classifications help investigators determine the specific cause and manner of death during a post-mortem examination.
73
According to the Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Rules, 1927, which rule provides the legal basis for the revocation of a prisoner's release license?
Correct Option
Option D
Explanation
Rule 7 of the Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Rules, 1927, is the governing provision for the revocation of a prisoner's license. This rule empowers the relevant authorities to cancel the license if the conditions of the release are violated. It serves as a critical mechanism for maintaining discipline and ensuring that the privilege of early release is not abused, thereby protecting the public interest and upholding the integrity of the correctional system.
74
Which sections of the Contract Act, 1872, specifically outline the duties of a principal toward their agent?
Correct Option
Option A
Explanation
Sections 222 through 225 of the Contract Act, 1872, define the obligations of a principal. Specifically, Section 222 covers the duty to indemnify the agent against consequences of lawful acts, Section 223 covers indemnity for acts done in good faith, Section 224 covers indemnity for liability for wrongful acts, and Section 225 covers compensation for injury caused by the principal's neglect.
75
What subject matter is addressed in Section 7 of the Muslim Family Laws Ordinance, 1961?
Correct Option
Option B
Explanation
Section 7 of the Muslim Family Laws Ordinance, 1961, is the primary legal provision governing the procedure for talaq (divorce) in Pakistan. It outlines the requirements for notifying the Chairman and the wife, the mandatory waiting period, and the role of the Arbitration Council in attempting to reconcile the parties before the divorce becomes effective.
76
Which rule of the Good Conduct Prisoners’ Probational Release Rules, 1927, governs the revocation of a prisoner's license?
Correct Option
Option D
Explanation
Under the Good Conduct Prisoners’ Probational Release Rules, 1927, Rule 7 specifically outlines the procedures and conditions under which the license granted to a prisoner for release can be revoked. This rule is essential for maintaining the integrity of the probation system, ensuring that if a prisoner violates the terms of their release, the authorities have the legal mandate to return them to custody.
77
On what date were the Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Rules officially implemented?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
The Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Rules were formally brought into effect on 1st May, 1927. This date marks the commencement of the regulatory framework designed to facilitate the conditional release of prisoners who demonstrated exemplary behavior, allowing for their reintegration into society under specific probationary supervision as mandated by the governing legislation of that era.
78
Under which category are sadism, masochism, and fetishism classified?
Correct Option
Option A
Explanation
Sadism, masochism, and fetishism are clinically and legally categorized as sexual perversions or paraphilias. These behaviors involve sexual arousal derived from non-traditional stimuli or activities, such as the infliction or reception of pain, or fixation on inanimate objects. Recognizing these as perversions is significant in forensic psychology and law, as they may be relevant in cases involving sexual offenses or capacity assessments.
79
From a legal perspective, what is the fundamental nature of an insurance contract?
Correct Option
Option C
Explanation
An insurance contract is fundamentally a contract of indemnity, except for life insurance. The principle of indemnity ensures that the insured is placed in the same financial position after a loss as they were immediately before the loss occurred. The insurer agrees to compensate the insured for actual loss suffered, preventing the insured from profiting from the occurrence of the insured event. This is a cornerstone of insurance law.
80
How are wounds generally classified in forensic and medical practice?
Correct Option
Option A
Explanation
Wounds are categorized based on the mechanism of injury and the appearance of the tissue damage. Common classifications include incised wounds (sharp force), lacerated wounds (blunt force tearing), stab wounds (penetrating force), and firearm wounds (high-velocity projectiles). Each type provides specific evidence regarding the weapon used and the circumstances of the injury.